Why do we permit the translation as ‘marriage’?

As I have posted here before, the issue in front of western courts these days should not be one of polygamy, but of Muslim marriage itself.

If a group of people want to live together in any fashion at all, who are we to stop it? How do we stop it? Cameras under the bed sheets? Clearly there are legal implications to marriage that need to be examined, but well before we get there, the question needs to be asked, ‘Is marriage in Islam in any way related to the western concept of an adult man and adult women voluntarily entering into a contract where all parties are aware of, and consenting to, the arrangement and have more or less equal recourse to the law and an exit strategy.

Clearly in Islam, this is not remotely the case. Women under sharia law are property. All laws dealing with contractual arrangements having to do with women are property deals. Women may in some cases actually choose their own destiny in some Islamic nations but that would be a privilege. Very often, women are forced into marriage for money, or to settle a debt for a father etc. As these two excellent videos illustrate, the way women are viewed in islam simply has no parallel in western societies and the sharia arrangement where a woman is transferred from one man to another should under no circumstances be permitted to be translated as ‘marriage’.

These should be looked at, and treated in the west as we would slavery. pedophilia, prostitution of children, forced sex slavery etc. An examination of this is urgent. As it is now in western nations distinctly different legal standards are being applied to muslims and non muslims, a giant step towards the implementation of a two tier system making sharia, or muslim law, dominant and the rights of the dhimmi. or non muslims resident, as secondary.
h/t TT for these videos:
Link: Muslim marriage

Link: Women in Afghanistan

About Eeyore

Canadian artist and counter-jihad and freedom of speech activist as well as devout Schrödinger's catholic

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